I think that, if our moral
intuitions are to be regarded as true,
then God is the best explanation for those moral intuitions being present. Not
only that, but I think that the best explanation for those moral intuitions
being true is God’s action in our lives. So, the argument would go as follows:
1.
If our
moral intuitions are true, then God is the best explanation of this fact.
2.
Our
moral intuitions are true.
3.
Therefore,
God is the best explanation of this fact.
4.
If God
is the best explanation of moral intuitions, then He exists.
5.
Therefore,
God exists.
(3) and (5) are logically
entailed conclusions. What do we make of (1)? We should only deny this if we
think that while our moral intuitions are true, there is a better explanation. Notice this claim is much more modest than
saying that God is the only
explanation of moral intuitions being true. All we are claiming is that, for
however many explanations there are, God is the best one. Without getting into
a lengthy discussion as to what makes a good explanation (though that is surely
important here), let’s cover some of the features. First, an explanation needs
to fit all the facts. Let’s consider the facts: God creating in us a sense of
moral knowledge (moral intuition) is certainly possible (it’s not unknown, or even
unlikely, for example, that God possesses this power). It also seems likely
that God (taken to be the monotheistic God of perfect being theology) would
ensure that our moral intuitions are generally reliable. Second, the
explanation needs to be relatively simple. It won’t do, for example, to claim
that the best explanation of our moral intuitions being true is seventeen
gods—at least not without argument. One God is simple enough (after all, the
entire “God-of-the-gaps” charge is based at least secondarily in how simple it
is). Competing explanations won’t cover it as well: for instance, it just seems
fortuitous that these moral intuitions turn out to be true. For instance, animals don’t need true moral intuitions in
order to survive, so the mere postulated fact that evolution occurs and we are
here isn’t a sufficient explanation for why we have moral intuitions and they are true. So it seems (1) is a
pretty good candidate to keep around.
Perhaps an opponent will then
bite the bullet and reject (2). “You’re right,” he may say. “God is the best
explanation of moral intuitions being true, but I’ve got news for you: they
aren’t.” There are two different objections that can be presented here. The
first objection is to claim that moral intuitions aren’t always true. They’re
false sometimes, and, in some cases, plenty of times.[1]
But the response back can be two-fold: first, in (1), we just mean generally true, not universally. Second,
simply because some intuitions are wrong sometimes, it doesn’t follow that they
are all suspect.[2]
The next objection is that all moral intuitions about moral facts fail because
all moral facts are false. That is to say that there just are no objective
moral values or duties, and so any intuitions about this are illusory. Now this
is entirely consistent with a naturalistic account of obtaining a sense of
objective moral values (or moral intuitions). However, while it is consistent,
it is wildly counterintuitive (literally!). Most people cannot shake the
feeling that certain things (e.g., racism, homophobia, beating up the elderly,
bullying, torturing babies, etc.) really are wrong, and their moral intuitions
are not deceiving them. One might suspect that even the objector does not
really believe that nothing is really wrong. But then it will follow that God
is the best explanation of our moral intuitions being true.
It seems to be an obvious
truth of logic to infer that if God is the explanation of moral intuitions
being true, then he exists. In any case, I don’t know what it would mean to
claim that God is such an explanation, but he doesn’t exist! If that’s the
case, we have another variant of the moral argument that can be used.
[1] There are a great many
people, for example, that claim to intuit homosexual behavior as permissible,
whereas many others intuit it as impermissible. One set of intuitions, if this
is true, is definitely false.
[2] One cannot show a
possible area of knowledge to be unreliable just by showing one error (or even
a few more): simply because some people reason incorrectly, it wouldn’t follow
that no one does!
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