In a recent
combox discussion, I was informed that intuitions were not generally reliable
(in response to a claim I had made that intuitions are generally reliable). I
thought it would be better to do a blog post about it. So, what does it mean
for something to be generally reliable? It occurs to me that the objector
probably thought I was claiming, “Of the set of all intuitive beliefs, enough
intuitive beliefs have turned out to be true so that we can claim intuition is
justified,” kind of like saying “75% of this person’s claims are true, so we
can believe the next one is probably true.” That’s not quite what I mean.
Stipulatively, I am using “generally reliable” to refer to the source of belief. I am referring to the
faculty of intuition itself. I believe rational intuition is itself a properly
functioning, truth-aimed belief source (in the normal situation, hence the term
“general”).
Taking this
definition, what follows if intuition is not a generally reliable source of
belief? That is, what if it is an unreliable source?[1]
Well, first, and really most relevantly, we must say that whatever belief is
generated from an unreliable source must also be itself unreliable, unless or
until it can be justified using solely reliable sources of belief or beliefs
that are generated themselves from reliable sources of belief. Call this, for
fun, the “Transitivity of Unreliability Principle” (TUP).
So, what if we
grant TUP? Does anything follow? Coupling this with the premise that intuition
is not a source of belief, we get the following consequence: whatever belief is
generated from intuition must be
itself unreliable, unless or until it can be justified using solely reliable
sources of belief or beliefs that are generated themselves from reliable
sources of belief. So far, so good.
But then notice
an interesting predicament. Scientific beliefs, such as the belief in induction
or the uniformity of nature, are beliefs generated from intuition. This is
demonstrated in the fact that there is no known scientific way to justify the
belief in inductive inferences, even in principle. This is a philosophical
judgment, and one that will proceed in a rational, a priori-like manner. If one attempts to prove or justify induction
in an a posteriori manner, she will
find that she is reasoning in a circle. Further, any attempt to justify it
using science will appeal to scientific premises, and, by our hypothesis, will
also be unreliable. So, by logical inference from TUP and the given premises
above, we will arrive inescapably at this bizarre conclusion: scientific
inferences must also be unreliable. This means that all scientific conclusions
are unreliable.
So what to do?
The only assailable principle, as far as I can tell, is that intuition is not a
generally reliable source of belief. At least, that’s the one non-inferential
belief that seems most likely false. In fact, it is rational intuition that
grounds science.
[1] Presumably, being
unreliable is what it means to be not reliable, after all.
Or we could say all scientific conclusions are unreliable.
ReplyDeleteI knew you'd say that. ;) What kinda Gordon Clark is this?! lol jk man.
DeleteI can't believe this, I was just about to write an article on EXACTLY this problem. I've been thinking/reading about this exact thing for months now! I see a lot of your concerns are the same as mine which is an indication to me that I'm on the right track. I am curious on your thoughts on one idea that I've been thinking about. If a skeptic were to claim that intuition were an unreliable source because our intuitions are incorrect more often than not, isn't making such a claim a rather hasty induction? Our intuitions are so vast and variagated that at face value it seems to me that such a probability may very well be inscrutable. Obviously, this isn't any kind of formal proof, but common sense tells you that for every incorrect intuition a skeptic brings up, you could name at least two correct ones.
ReplyDeleteHi Jonathan, thanks for commenting! :)
DeleteYes, I think you're on the right track. I wondered that myself: how can we really know our intuitions *are* incorrect more often than not? Even in cases where we have falsified our intuitions, aren't we relying on several more intuitions in order to justify the belief that we have falsified the intuition in question? It seems that we would have to use a few: that the external world is real, that truths of logic apply, that our senses are not deceiving us in the particular and relevant facts that contravene the intuition under inspection, that the world wasn't created five minutes ago and that we really held the belief we did hold, that our memories are reliable sources of information from one moment to the next, and so on. If we lack any one of these intuitions, or if any one of them are unjustified, then it looks bad for any case we might make against any particular intuition (even if it's true that the particular intuition is false).
Scientific beliefs, such as the belief in induction or the uniformity of nature, are beliefs generated from intuition....
ReplyDeleteSorry, that's absolutely wrong. Faulty premise. Faulty conclusion.
I don't normally allow anonymous comments, but I will allow this one. If you'll just attach your name to the next one, that will be fine. I only wish to have substantive discussion. Now why should anyone think what you've said is true? :)
Delete